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dry beaning by the bottle?


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#1 Zsasz

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Posted 21 December 2018 - 04:53 AM

I'm going to be giving some people some bottles of stout filled from the keg as x-mas presents.  I was thinking that maybe I'd throw a few coffee beans (whole) into the bottles before I filled them so some of the beers would be coffee stout.  has anyone tried this?  any idea how many beans might be about right for 2-3 days of exposure time?


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#2 HVB

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Posted 21 December 2018 - 05:41 AM

I have seen it doe with hops and think it is a neat idea when giving them as gifts.  I am not sure but 3-5 beans are jumping out to me.  I guess I could do the math but I used 2 oz of whole beans for a 5g keg.  After 3-4 days I thought it was right were I wanted it.


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#3 Zsasz

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Posted 22 December 2018 - 04:28 AM

I think I used a similar amount for 5 gals.  I guess I could always weigh and count.


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#4 denny

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Posted 22 December 2018 - 12:12 PM

I'd be worried about the length of time the beans might be in.  And I've had VERY bad luck with bottle hops.


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#5 Zsasz

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Posted 22 December 2018 - 02:00 PM

I'd be worried about the length of time the beans might be in.  And I've had VERY bad luck with bottle hops.

 

I'd instruct to consume in a day or so after I give it to them.  these are people I give homebrew to regularly so they get that there are time limits on these things.


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#6 Zsasz

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Posted 23 December 2018 - 08:51 AM

so I was pretty surprised.  I weighed out a little under 1oz of beans which should be about 10 pints worth (40 pints per 5 gal).  I then divided this about in half by eye and split that half into 5 equal parts.  it was 15-20 beans!  I would not have guessed it was that many per pint.


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